No — the term “Semite” did not exist before the Bible.

It was coined in 1781 CE by German historian August Ludwig von Schlözer, 2,000+ years after the Hebrew Bible was completed.
Timeline: When “Semite” Was Invented
Date
Event
c. 1200–200 BCE
Hebrew Bible (Tanakh) written — no word “Semite” anywhere.
c. 200 BCE – 500 CE
Septuagint, Dead Sea Scrolls, Talmud — still no “Semite”.
1781 CE
Schlözer publishes Repertorium and uses “semitisch” to group languages descended from Shem (Genesis 10).
1870s CE
Term enters English via biblical scholars and linguists.
Where the Idea Came From
  • Genesis 10 (Table of Nations): Lists 70 nations from Noah’s sons:
    • Shem → Elam, Asshur, Arphaxad, Lud, Aram (Mesopotamia, Levant, Arabia).
    • Ham → Egypt, Canaan, etc.
    • Japheth → Europe, Asia Minor.
  • Schlözer used “Semitic” as a linguistic label for:
    Hebrew, Aramaic, Arabic, Akkadian, Phoenician, Ethiopic…
  • Not a racial or ethnic term originally — just a language family.
Before “Semite”: What Did People Say?
Ancient Term
Meaning
“Children of Eber” (עברים / ʿIḇrîm)
Biblical self-name for Hebrews (Genesis 14:13).
“Habiru / ʿApiru”
Social class of outsiders/migrants in Egyptian & Amarna texts (1400 BCE).
“Arameans,” “Canaanites,” “Amorites”
Regional/tribal labels — no umbrella term.
No ancient person ever called themselves a “Semite.”
Modern Misuse
  • 19th-century racism turned “Semite” into a pseudo-racial category (→ antisemitism).
  • Wilhelm Marr (1879) coined “Antisemitismus” — even though Arabs are Semites too.
TL;DR: Final Answer
No — “Semite” was invented in 1781 CE by a German scholar.
The Bible never uses the word — it only has Shem, whose descendants were later grouped as “Semitic” by linguists.
Sources:
  • August Ludwig von Schlözer, Repertorium (1781)
  • Oxford English Dictionary etymology of “Semite”
  • Shlomo Sand, The Invention of the Jewish People (on modern constructs)
Want the original 1781 quote in German? I can pull it.

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